CallSign.co - Amateur Radio on the Web

FCC Question ID

G1A07

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 20-meter phone band?

Choose A

14005 kHz

Choose B

14105 kHz

Choose C

14305 kHz

Choose D

14405 kHz

G1B07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?

Choose A

Only “Q” signals are permitted

Choose B

They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message

Choose C

They are not permitted

Choose D

Only “10 codes” are permitted

G1C06

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

Choose A

200 watts PEP output

Choose B

1000 watts PEP output

Choose C

1200 watts PEP output

Choose D

1500 watts PEP output

G1D01

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired Amateur Radio license?

Choose A

Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC

Choose B

Anyone who held an FCC-issued Amateur Radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years

Choose C

Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC

Choose D

Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license

G1E11

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital station?

Choose A

On any band segment where digital operation is permitted

Choose B

Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands

Choose C

Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands

Choose D

Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands

G2A12

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

Choose A

The RF clipping level

Choose B

Transmit audio or microphone gain

Choose C

Antenna inductance or capacitance

Choose D

Attenuator level

G2B01

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Choose A

Nets always have priority

Choose B

QSOs in progress always have priority

Choose C

Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency

Choose D

Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies

G2C03

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

Choose A

Listening for novice stations

Choose B

Operating full break-in

Choose C

Listening only for a specific station or stations

Choose D

Closing station now

G2D10

What is QRP operation?

Choose A

Remote piloted model control

Choose B

Low-power transmit operation

Choose C

Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

Choose D

Traffic relay procedure net operation

G2E03

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?

Choose A

Frequent retries or timeouts

Choose B

Long pauses in message transmission

Choose C

Failure to establish a connection between stations

Choose D

All these choices are correct

G3A03

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on Earth?

Choose A

28 days

Choose B

1 to 2 hours

Choose C

8 minutes

Choose D

20 to 40 hours

G3B05

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?

Choose A

They are bent back to Earth

Choose B

They pass through the ionosphere

Choose C

They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere

Choose D

They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

G3C09

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?

Choose A

Faraday rotation

Choose B

Scatter

Choose C

Chordal hop

Choose D

Short-path

G4A12

Which of the following is a common use for the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

Choose A

To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once

Choose B

To permit full duplex operation — that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time

Choose C

To permit monitoring of two different frequencies

Choose D

To facilitate computer interface

G4B01

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

Choose A

An ohmmeter

Choose B

A signal generator

Choose C

An ammeter

Choose D

An oscilloscope

G4C08

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Choose A

Placing a ferrite choke around the cable

Choose B

Adding series capacitors to the conductors

Choose C

Adding shunt inductors to the conductors

Choose D

Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable

G4D01

What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

Choose A

Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions

Choose B

Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals

Choose C

Prevent distortion of voice signals

Choose D

Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation

G4E02

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

Choose A

To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna

Choose B

To increase the “Q” of the antenna

Choose C

To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object

Choose D

To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting

G5A02

What is reactance?

Choose A

Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance

Choose B

Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

Choose C

A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits

Choose D

A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized

G5B05

How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1250 ohm resistance?

Choose A

Approximately 61 milliwatts

Choose B

Approximately 61 watts

Choose C

Approximately 11 milliwatts

Choose D

Approximately 11 watts

G5C07

What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?

Choose A

12.2 to 1

Choose B

24.4 to 1

Choose C

150 to 1

Choose D

300 to 1

G6A04

Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor?

Choose A

Tight tolerance

Choose B

Much less leakage than any other type

Choose C

High capacitance for a given volume

Choose D

Inexpensive RF capacitor

G6B04

What is meant by the term ROM?

Choose A

Resistor Operated Memory

Choose B

Read Only Memory

Choose C

Random Operational Memory

Choose D

Resistant to Overload Memory

G7A07

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

Choose A

A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input

Choose B

A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input

Choose C

A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input

Choose D

A steady DC voltage

G7B09

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

Choose A

The number of stages in the counter

Choose B

The number of stages in the divider

Choose C

The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit

Choose D

The time delay of the lag circuit

G7C12

What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?

Choose A

Notch frequency

Choose B

Neper frequency

Choose C

Cutoff frequency

Choose D

Rolloff frequency

G8A03

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Choose A

Frequency convolution

Choose B

Frequency transformation

Choose C

Frequency conversion

Choose D

Frequency modulation

G8B09

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

Choose A

It is required by FCC rules

Choose B

It minimizes power consumption in the receiver

Choose C

It improves impedance matching of the antenna

Choose D

It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio

G9A10

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 10 ohm impedance?

Choose A

2:1

Choose B

50:1

Choose C

1:5

Choose D

5:1

G9B01

What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?

Choose A

It must be longer than 1 wavelength

Choose B

You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station

Choose C

It produces only vertically polarized radiation

Choose D

It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands

G9C15

What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

Choose A

dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna

Choose B

dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antenna

Choose C

dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna

Choose D

dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna

G9D02

What is the feed-point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Choose A

Very low

Choose B

Approximately 50 ohms

Choose C

Approximately 300 ohms

Choose D

Very high

G0A06

What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?

Choose A

It should not be installed higher than you can reach

Choose B

It should not be installed in a wet area

Choose C

It should be limited to 10 feet in height

Choose D

It should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access

G0B03

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

Choose A

100 amperes

Choose B

60 amperes

Choose C

30 amperes

Choose D

15 amperes